UPSC Prelims 2019 Previous Year Questions
Browse all 101 questions from the UPSC Prelims 2019 paper. Every question includes the correct answer, a detailed explanation, the source it was drawn from, and a breakdown of what UPSC intended to test.
UPSC Prelims 2019 questions by subject
Environment and Ecology questions from UPSC Prelims 2019
Q6
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of the cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulfate aerosol into the stratosphere?
- (a)Creating the artificial rains in some regions
- (b)Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
- (c)Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
- (d)Reducing the global warming
In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?
- (a)Extraction of rare earth elements
- (b)Natural gas extraction technologies
- (c)Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
- (d)Waste-to-energy technologies
Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
- (a)Neyyar, Peppara, and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
- (b)Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam, and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
- (c)Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
- (d)Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Q6
8. Consider the following statements:
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 3 only
- (b)2, 3, and 4 only(e) 2 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads' that are released into the environment?
- (a)They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
- (b)They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
- (c)They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
- (d)They are often found to be used as food adulterants.
In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
- (a)pesticides in agriculture
- (b)preservatives in processed foods
- (c)fruit-ripening agents
- (d)moisturizing agents in cosmetics
Q1
00. Consider the following statements:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Q9
5. Consider the following:
1. Carbon monoxide2. Methane3. Ozone4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2, 3, and 4 only
- (c)1 and 4 ‘only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Consider the following statements:The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
- (a)Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
- (b)The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
- (c)The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
- (d)It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
- (a)Manas National Park
- (b)Namdapha National Park
- (c)Neora Valley National Park
- (d)Valley of Flowers National Park
Q8
1. Consider the following statements:
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 and 3 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)2 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Q8
3. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Consider the following pairs:
Wildlife Naturally found in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Q9
3. Consider the following States:
1. Chhattisgarh2. Madhya Pradesh3. Maharashtra4. Odisha
With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of the percentage of forest cover to the total area of the State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
- (a)2-3-1-4
- (b)2-3-4-1
- (c)3-2-4-1
- (d)3-2-1-4
Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
- (a)anti-malarial drug
- (b)bio-diesel
- (c)pulp for the paper industry
- (d)textile fiber
Q9
4. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate?
1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
In India, ‘extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
- (a)The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
- (b)The Recycled plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
- (c)The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
- (d)The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
Consider the following statements1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programs carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Q3
5. Consider the following statements:
1. As per a recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboo grown in forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo are a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Polity and Governance questions from UPSC Prelims 2019
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?
- (a)Article 19
- (b)Article 21
- (c)Article 25
- (d)Article 29
Consider the following statements:1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Q8
9. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit'.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)3 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
- (a)Jawaharlal Nehru
- (b)Lal Bahadur Shastri
- (c)Indira Gandhi
- (d)Morarji Desai
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
- (a)Third Schedule
- (b)Fifth Schedule
- (c)Ninth Schedule
- (d)Twelfth Schedule
Q8
6. Consider the following statements:
1. The- motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act,
1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehavior' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act,
1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 and 2
- (b)3 only
- (c)3 and 4 only
- (d)1, 3 and 4
Consider the following statements:
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to, ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant women are entitled to three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Q1
2. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 and 3 only
- (b)2 and 3 only(e) 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
- (a)First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
- (b)Rajamannar Committee (1969)
- (c)Sarkaria Commission (1983)
- (d)National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Q1
9. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees3. Finance Commission4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2
- (b)1, 3 and 4
- (c)3, 4 and 5
- (d)2 and 5
With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations, or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
- (a)The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
- (b)The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by-laws made by the Parliament.
- (c)In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
- (d)State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature.
With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
- (a)Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
- (b)Absence of restraint
- (c)Opportunity to do whatever one likes
- (d)Opportunity to develop oneself fully.
History questions from UPSC Prelims 2019
Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
- (a)Chanhudaro
- (b)Kot Diji
- (c)Sohgaura
- (d)Desalpur
In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
- (a)Kanganahalli
- (b)Sanchi I
- (c)Shahbazgarhi
- (d)Sohgaura
Q5
9. Consider the following:
1. Deification of the Buddha2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas3. Image worship and rituals
Which of the above is/are the feature/ features of Mahayana Buddhism?
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
With reference to forced labor (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
- (a)It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
- (b)It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
- (c)The forced laborer was entitled to weekly wages.
- (d)The eldest son of the laborer was sent as a forced laborer.
Q7
2. Consider the following statements:
1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil'.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi' came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Q7
4. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labor'.
2. In Lord Chelmsford's ‘War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of the Salt Law by the Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)1 and 3 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Question 1: Consider the following pairs
Movement/organization Leader
All India Anti-Untouchability League: Mahatma Gandhi
All India Kisan Sabha : Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
Self-Respect Movement: E.V.Ramaswami Naicker
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Q77Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
- (a)Humayun
- (b)Akbar
- (c)Jahangir
- (d)Shah Jahan
Consider the following pairs:
Movement/Organization Leader
1. All India Anti-Untouchability League Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement Naicker E.V. Ramaswami
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- (a)1 only
- (b)1 and 2 only
- (c)2 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only(e) Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Q5
4. Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813':
1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:1. It contributed to the revival of indigenous artisan crafts and industries.2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Science and Technology questions from UPSC Prelims 2019
Q3
7. Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 and 3 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Q4
1. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:
1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of a smartphone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing a complete immersion experience.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)3 and 4
- (c)1, 2 and 3
- (d)4 only
The word ‘Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
- (a)fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
- (b)an early human species
- (c)a cave system found in North-East India.
- (d)a geological period in the history of the Indian subcontinent
With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
- (b)Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in Laboratories.
- (c)A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
- (d)Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory Petri dishes.
Q4
4. Consider the following statements:A digital signature is1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on the Internet.
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Q4
5. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?
1. Location identification of a person2. Sleep monitoring of a person3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Q9
2. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?
1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Q4
6. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?
1. It is used in developing gene-silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1, 2 and 4
- (b)2 and 3
- (c)1 and 3
- (d)1 and 4 only
Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘black holes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
- (a)‘Higgs boson particles' were detected.
- (b)‘Gravitational waves' were detected.(e) Possibility of intergalactic space travel through ‘wormhole' was confirmed.
- (d)It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity'.
Q4
8. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 and 2
- (b)2 and 3 only(e) 1, 3 and 4
- (d)2, 3 and 4
What is the Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
- (a)A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
- (b)A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
- (c)A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
- (d)A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
- (b)Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
- (c)Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
- (d)Some of those infected with Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.
With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?1. LTE ‘is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE are commonly marketed as advanced 3G.2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
Indian and World Geography questions from UPSC Prelims 2019
Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World' and introduced into the ‘Old World'?
- (a)Tobacco, cocoa, and rubber
- (b)Tobacco, cotton, and rubber.
- (c)Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
- (d)Rubber, coffee, and wheat
Q82 What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
- (a)Recently discovered uranium deposits
- (b)Tropical rainforests
- (c)Underground cave systems
- (d)Water reservoirs
Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
- (a)Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.
- (b)Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.
- (c)The Earth's surface would have a low temperature on cloudy nights.
- (d)Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.
Consider the following pairs
| Famous Place | River |
|---|---|
| Pandharpur | Chandrabhaga |
| Tiruchirappalli | Cauvery |
| Hampi | Malaprabha |
- (a)1 and 2 only
- (b)2 and 3 only
- (c)1 and 3 only
- (d)1, 2 and 3
Consider the following pairs
Sea—Bordering Country
1. Adriatic Sea — Albania
2. Black Sea — Croatia
3. Caspian Sea — Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea – Morocco
5. Red Sea — Syria
Which of the pair given above are correctly matched?
- (a)1, 2 and 4 only
- (b)1, 3 and 4 only
- (c)2 and 5 only
- (d)1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
On 21st June, the Sun
- (a)does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
- (b)does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
- (c)shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
- (d)shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn
Consider the following pairs:
Glacier River
1. Bandarpunch Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri Chenab
3. Milam Mandakini
4. Siachen Nubra
5. Zemu Manas
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- (a)1, 2 and 4
- (b)1, 3 and 4
- (c)2 and 5
- (d)3 and 5
Q2
3. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of Jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 3 only
- (b)2, 3, and 4 only
- (c)2 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Current Affairs questions from UPSC Prelims 2019
Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
- (a)Department of Science and Technology
- (b)Ministry of Employment
- (c)NITI Aayog
- (d)Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
- (a)International Monetary Fund
- (b)United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
- (c)World Economic Forum
- (d)World Bank
Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May 2018?
- (a)Australia
- (b)Canada
- (c)The European Union
- (d)The United States of America
Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries?
- (a)Japan
- (b)Russia
- (c)The United Kingdom
- (d)The United States of America
Q3
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'.
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- (a)1 and 3 only
- (b)2, 3, and 4 only
- (c)2 and 4 only
- (d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Art and Culture questions from UPSC Prelims 2019
Building ‘Kalyana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
- (a)Chalukya
- (b)Chandela
- (c)Rashtrakuta
- (d)Vijayanagara
Consider the following statements:1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a)1 only
- (b)2 only
- (c)Both 1 and 2
- (d)Neither 1 nor 2
With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a)Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
- (b)Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
- (c)Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
- (d)Tansen invented many Ragas.